Psychiatric
Nursing. 01
1. Mental
health is defined as:
a. The
ability to distinguish what is real from what is not.
b. A
state of well-being where a person can realize his own abilities can cope with
normal stresses of life and work productively.
c. Is
the promotion of mental health, prevention of mental disorders, nursing care of
patients during illness and rehabilitation
d. Absence
of mental illness
2. Which
of the following describes the role of a technician?
a. Administers
medications to a schizophrenic patient.
b. The
nurse feeds and bathes a catatonic client
c. Coordinates
diverse aspects of care rendered to the patient
d. Disseminates
information about alcohol and its effects.
3. Liza
says, “Give me 10 minutes to recall the name of our college professor who
failed many students in our anatomy class.” She is operating on her:
a. Subconscious b. Conscious c. Unconscious d. Ego
4. The
superego is that part of the psyche that:
a. Uses
defensive function for protection. b. Is
impulsive and without morals.
c. Determines
the circumstances before making decisions. d. The censoring
portion of the mind.
5. Primary
level of prevention is exemplified by:
a. Helping
the client resume self care. b. Ensuring
the safety of a suicidal client in the institution.
c. Teaching
the client stress management techniques d. Case finding and surveillance
in the community
6. Situation:
In a home visit done by the nurse, she suspects that the wife and her child are
victims of abuse. Which of the following is the most appropriate for the nurse
to ask?
a. “Are
you being threatened or hurt by your partner? b. “Are
you frightened of you partner”
c. “Is
something bothering you?” d. “What
happens when you and your partner argue?”
7. The
wife admits that she is a victim of abuse and opens up about her persistent
distaste for sex. This sexual disorder is:
a. Sexual
desire disorder b. Sexual
arousal Disorder
c. Orgasm
Disorder d. Sexual
Pain Disorder
8. What
would be the best approach for a wife who is still living with her abusive
husband?
a. “Here’s
the number of a crisis center that you can call for help .”
b. “Its
best to leave your husband.”
c. “Did
you discuss this with your family?”
d. “
Why do you allow yourself to be treated this way”
9. Which
comment about a 3 year old child if made by the parent may indicate child
abuse?
a. “Once
my child is toilet trained, I can still expect her to have some"
b. “When
I tell my child to do something once, I don’t expect to have to tell"
c. “My
child is expected to try to do things such as, dress and feed.”
d. “My
3 year old loves to say NO.”
10. The
primary nursing intervention for a victim of child abuse is:
a. Assess
the scope of the problem b. Analyze
the family dynamics
c. Ensure
the safety of the victim d. Teach
the victim coping skills
11. Situation:
A 30 year old male employee frequently complains of low back pain that leads to
frequent absences from work. Consultation and tests reveal negative results.
The client has which somatoform disorder?
a. Somatization
Disorder b. Hypochondriaisis
c. Conversion
Disorder d. Somatoform
Pain Disorder
12. Freud
explains anxiety as:
a. Strives
to gratify the needs for satisfaction and security
b. Conflict
between id and superego
c. A
hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal reaction to stress
d. A
conditioned response to stressors
13. The
following are appropriate nursing diagnosis for the client EXCEPT:
a. Ineffective
individual coping b. Alteration
in comfort, pain
c. Altered
role performance d. Impaired
social interaction
14. The
following statements describe somatoform disorders:
a. Physical
symptoms are explained by organic causes
b. It
is a voluntary expression of psychological conflicts
c. Expression
of conflicts through bodily symptoms
d. Management
entails a specific medical treatment
15. What
would be the best response to the client’s repeated complaints of pain:
a. “I
know the feeling is real tests revealed negative results.”
b. “I
think you’re exaggerating things a little bit.”
c. “Try
to forget this feeling and have activities to take it off your mind”
d. “So
tell me more about the pain”
16. Situation:
A nurse may encounter children with mental disorders. Her knowledge of these
various disorders is vital. When planning school interventions for a child with
a diagnosis of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, a guide to remember is
to:
a. provide
as much structure as possible for the child
b. ignore
the child’s overactivity.
c. encourage
the child to engage in any play activity to dissipate energy
d. remove
the child from the classroom when disruptive behavior occurs
17. The
child with conduct disorder will likely demonstrate:
a. Easy
distractibility to external stimuli. b. Ritualistic
behaviors
c. Preference
for inanimate objects. d. Serious
violations of age related norms.
18. Ritalin
is the drug of choice for chidren with ADHD. The side effects of the following
may be noted:
a. increased
attention span and concentration b. increase
in appetite
c. sleepiness
and lethargy d. bradycardia
and diarrhea
19. School
phobia is usually treated by:
a. Returning
the child to the school immediately with family support.
b. Calmly
explaining why attendance in school is necessary
c. Allowing
the child to enter the school before the other children
d. Allowing
the parent to accompany the child in the classroom
20. A
10 year old child has very limited vocabulary and interaction skills. She has
an I.Q. of 45. She is diagnosed to have Mental retardation of this
classification:
a. Profound b. Mild c. Moderate d. Severe
21. The
nurse teaches the parents of a mentally retarded child regarding her care. The
following guidelines may be taught except:
a. overprotection
of the child b. patience,
routine and repetition
c. assisting
the parents set realistic goals d. giving
reasonable compliments
22. The
parents express apprehensions on their ability to care for their maladaptive
child. The nurse identifies what nursing diagnosis:
a. hopelessness b. altered
parenting role
c. altered
family process d. ineffective
coping
23. A
5 year old boy is diagnosed to have autistic disorder. Which of the following
manifestations may be noted in a client with autistic disorder?
a. argumentativeness,
disobedience, angry outburst
b. intolerance
to change, disturbed relatedness, stereotypes
c. distractibility,
impulsiveness and overactivity
d. aggression,
truancy, stealing, lying
24. The
therapeutic approach in the care of an autistic child include the following
EXCEPT:
a. Engage
in diversionary activities when acting –out b. Provide an
atmosphere of acceptance
c. Provide
safety measures d. Rearrange
the environment to activate the child
25. According
to Piaget a 5 year old is in what stage of development:
a. Sensory
motor stage b. Concrete
operations
c. Pre-operational d. Formal
operation
ANSWER
1.
Answer: (B) A state
of well-being where a person can realize his own abilities can cope with normal
stresses of life and work productively.
Mental health is a state of emotional and psychosocial well being. A mentally healthy individual is self aware and self directive, has the ability to solve problems, can cope with crisis without assistance beyond the support of family and friends fulfill the capacity to love and work and sets goals and realistic limits. A. This describes the ego function reality testing. C. This is the definition of Mental Health and Psychiatric Nursing. D. Mental health is not just the absence of mental illness.
Mental health is a state of emotional and psychosocial well being. A mentally healthy individual is self aware and self directive, has the ability to solve problems, can cope with crisis without assistance beyond the support of family and friends fulfill the capacity to love and work and sets goals and realistic limits. A. This describes the ego function reality testing. C. This is the definition of Mental Health and Psychiatric Nursing. D. Mental health is not just the absence of mental illness.
2.
Answer: (A)
Administers medications to a schizophrenic patient.
Administration of medications and treatments, assessment, documentation are the activities of the nurse as a technician. B. Activities as a parent surrogate. C. Refers to the ward manager role. D. Role as a teacher.
Administration of medications and treatments, assessment, documentation are the activities of the nurse as a technician. B. Activities as a parent surrogate. C. Refers to the ward manager role. D. Role as a teacher.
3.
Answer: (A)
Subconscious
Subconscious refers to the materials that are partly remembered partly forgotten but these can be recalled spontaneously and voluntarily. B. This functions when one is awake. One is aware of his thoughts, feelings actions and what is going on in the environment. C. The largest potion of the mind that contains the memories of one’s past particularly the unpleasant. It is difficult to recall the unconscious content. D. The conscious self that deals and tests reality.
Subconscious refers to the materials that are partly remembered partly forgotten but these can be recalled spontaneously and voluntarily. B. This functions when one is awake. One is aware of his thoughts, feelings actions and what is going on in the environment. C. The largest potion of the mind that contains the memories of one’s past particularly the unpleasant. It is difficult to recall the unconscious content. D. The conscious self that deals and tests reality.
4.
Answer: (D) The
censoring portion of the mind.
The critical censoring portion of one’s personality; the conscience. A. This refers to the ego function that protects itself from anything that threatens it.. B. The Id is composed of the untamed, primitive drives and impulses. C. This refers to the ego that acts as the moderator of the struggle between the id and the superego.
The critical censoring portion of one’s personality; the conscience. A. This refers to the ego function that protects itself from anything that threatens it.. B. The Id is composed of the untamed, primitive drives and impulses. C. This refers to the ego that acts as the moderator of the struggle between the id and the superego.
5.
Answer: (C) Teaching
the client stress management techniques
Primary level of prevention refers to the promotion of mental health and prevention of mental illness. This can be achieved by rendering health teachings such as modifying ones responses to stress. A. This is tertiary level of prevention that deals with rehabilitation. B and D. Secondary level of prevention which involves reduction of actual illness through early detection and treatment of illness.
Primary level of prevention refers to the promotion of mental health and prevention of mental illness. This can be achieved by rendering health teachings such as modifying ones responses to stress. A. This is tertiary level of prevention that deals with rehabilitation. B and D. Secondary level of prevention which involves reduction of actual illness through early detection and treatment of illness.
6.
Answer: (A) “Are you
being threatened or hurt by your partner?
The nurse validates her observation by asking simple, direct question. This also shows empathy. B, C, and D are indirect questions which may not lead to the discussion of abuse.
The nurse validates her observation by asking simple, direct question. This also shows empathy. B, C, and D are indirect questions which may not lead to the discussion of abuse.
7.
Answer: (A) Sexual
desire disorder
Has little or no sexual desire or has distaste for sex. B. Failure to maintain the physiologic requirements for sexual intercourse. C. Persistent and recurrent inability to achieve an orgasm. D. Also called dyspareunia. Individuals with this disorder suffer genital pain before, during and after sexual intercourse.
Has little or no sexual desire or has distaste for sex. B. Failure to maintain the physiologic requirements for sexual intercourse. C. Persistent and recurrent inability to achieve an orgasm. D. Also called dyspareunia. Individuals with this disorder suffer genital pain before, during and after sexual intercourse.
8.
Answer: (A) “Here’s
the number of a crisis center that you can call for help .”
Protection is a priority concern in abuse. Help the victim to develop a plan to ensure safety. B. Do not give advice to leave the abuser. Making decisions for the victim further erodes her esteem. However discuss options available. C. The victim tends to isolate from friends and family. D. This is judgmental. Avoid in anyway implying that she is at fault.
Protection is a priority concern in abuse. Help the victim to develop a plan to ensure safety. B. Do not give advice to leave the abuser. Making decisions for the victim further erodes her esteem. However discuss options available. C. The victim tends to isolate from friends and family. D. This is judgmental. Avoid in anyway implying that she is at fault.
9.
Answer: (B) “When I
tell my child to do something once, I don’t expect to have to tell"
Abusive parents tend to have unrealistic expectations on the child. A,B and C are realistic expectations on a 3 year old.
Abusive parents tend to have unrealistic expectations on the child. A,B and C are realistic expectations on a 3 year old.
10.
Answer: (C) Ensure
the safety of the victim
The priority consideration is the safety of the victim. Attend to the physical injuries to ensure the physiologic safety and integrity of the child. Reporting suspected case of abuse may deter recurrence of abuse. A,B and D may be addressed later.
The priority consideration is the safety of the victim. Attend to the physical injuries to ensure the physiologic safety and integrity of the child. Reporting suspected case of abuse may deter recurrence of abuse. A,B and D may be addressed later.
11.
Answer: (D)
Somatoform Pain Disorder
This is characterized by severe and prolonged pain that causes significant distress. A. This is a chronic syndrome of somatic symptoms that cannot be explained medically and is associated with psychosocial distress. B. This is an unrealistic preoccupation with a fear of having a serious illness. C. Characterized by alteration or loss in sensory or motor function resulting from a psychological conflict.
This is characterized by severe and prolonged pain that causes significant distress. A. This is a chronic syndrome of somatic symptoms that cannot be explained medically and is associated with psychosocial distress. B. This is an unrealistic preoccupation with a fear of having a serious illness. C. Characterized by alteration or loss in sensory or motor function resulting from a psychological conflict.
12.
Answer: (B) Conflict
between id and superego
Freud explains anxiety as due to opposing action drives between the id and the superego. A. Sullivan identified 2 types of needs, satisfaction and security. Failure to gratify these needs may result in anxiety. C. Biomedical perspective of anxiety. D. Explanation of anxiety using the behavioral model.
Freud explains anxiety as due to opposing action drives between the id and the superego. A. Sullivan identified 2 types of needs, satisfaction and security. Failure to gratify these needs may result in anxiety. C. Biomedical perspective of anxiety. D. Explanation of anxiety using the behavioral model.
13.
Answer: (D) Impaired
social interaction
The client may not have difficulty in social exchange. The cues do not support this diagnosis. A. The client maladaptively uses body symptoms to manage anxiety. B. The client will have discomfort due to pain. C. The client may fail to meet environmental expectations due to pain.
The client may not have difficulty in social exchange. The cues do not support this diagnosis. A. The client maladaptively uses body symptoms to manage anxiety. B. The client will have discomfort due to pain. C. The client may fail to meet environmental expectations due to pain.
14.
Answer: (C)
Expression of conflicts through bodily symptoms
Bodily symptoms are used to handle conflicts. A. Manifestations do not have an organic basis. B. This occurs unconsciously. D. Medical treatment is not used because the disorder does not have a structural or organic basis.
Bodily symptoms are used to handle conflicts. A. Manifestations do not have an organic basis. B. This occurs unconsciously. D. Medical treatment is not used because the disorder does not have a structural or organic basis.
15.
Answer: (A) “I know
the feeling is real tests revealed negative results.”
Shows empathy and offers information. B. This is a demeaning statement. C. This belittles the client’s feelings. D. Giving undue attention to the physical symptom reinforces the complaint.
Shows empathy and offers information. B. This is a demeaning statement. C. This belittles the client’s feelings. D. Giving undue attention to the physical symptom reinforces the complaint.
16.
Answer: (A) provide
as much structure as possible for the child
Decrease stimuli for behavior control thru an environment that is free of distractions, a calm non –confrontational approach and setting limit to time allotted for activities. B. The child will not benefit from a lenient approach. C. Dissipate energy through safe activities. D. This indicates that the classroom environment lacks structure.
Decrease stimuli for behavior control thru an environment that is free of distractions, a calm non –confrontational approach and setting limit to time allotted for activities. B. The child will not benefit from a lenient approach. C. Dissipate energy through safe activities. D. This indicates that the classroom environment lacks structure.
17.
Answer: (D) Serious
violations of age related norms.
This is a disruptive disorder among children characterized by more serious violations of social standards such as aggression, vandalism, stealing, lying and truancy. A. This is characteristic of attention deficit disorder. B and C. These are noted among children with autistic disorder.
This is a disruptive disorder among children characterized by more serious violations of social standards such as aggression, vandalism, stealing, lying and truancy. A. This is characteristic of attention deficit disorder. B and C. These are noted among children with autistic disorder.
18.
Answer: (A)
increased attention span and concentration
The medication has a paradoxic effect that decrease hyperactivity and impulsivity among children with ADHD. B, C, D. Side effects of Ritalin include anorexia, insomnia, diarrhea and irritability.
The medication has a paradoxic effect that decrease hyperactivity and impulsivity among children with ADHD. B, C, D. Side effects of Ritalin include anorexia, insomnia, diarrhea and irritability.
19.
Answer: (A)
Returning the child to the school immediately with family support.
Exposure to the feared situation can help in overcoming anxiety. A. This will not help in relieving the anxiety due separation from a significant other. C. and C. Anxiety in school phobia is not due to being in school but due to separation from parents/caregivers so these interventions are not applicable. D. This will not help the child overcome the fear
Exposure to the feared situation can help in overcoming anxiety. A. This will not help in relieving the anxiety due separation from a significant other. C. and C. Anxiety in school phobia is not due to being in school but due to separation from parents/caregivers so these interventions are not applicable. D. This will not help the child overcome the fear
20.
Answer: (C)
Moderate
The child with moderate mental retardation has an I.Q. of 35-50 Profound Mental retardation has an I.Q. of below 20; Mild mental retardation 50-70 and Severe mental retardation has an I.Q. of 20-35.
The child with moderate mental retardation has an I.Q. of 35-50 Profound Mental retardation has an I.Q. of below 20; Mild mental retardation 50-70 and Severe mental retardation has an I.Q. of 20-35.
21.
Answer: (A)
overprotection of the child
The child with mental retardation should not be overprotected but need protection from injury and the teasing of other children. B,C, and D Children with mental retardation have learning difficulty. They should be taught with patience and repetition, start from simple to complex, use visuals and compliment them for motivation. Realistic expectations should be set and optimize their capability.
The child with mental retardation should not be overprotected but need protection from injury and the teasing of other children. B,C, and D Children with mental retardation have learning difficulty. They should be taught with patience and repetition, start from simple to complex, use visuals and compliment them for motivation. Realistic expectations should be set and optimize their capability.
22.
Answer: (B) altered
parenting role
Altered parenting role refers to the inability to create an environment that promotes optimum growth and development of the child. This is reflected in the parent’s inability to care for the child. A. This refers to lack of choices or inability to mobilize one’s resources. C. Refers to change in family relationship and function. D. Ineffective coping is the inability to form valid appraisal of the stressor or inability to use available resources
Altered parenting role refers to the inability to create an environment that promotes optimum growth and development of the child. This is reflected in the parent’s inability to care for the child. A. This refers to lack of choices or inability to mobilize one’s resources. C. Refers to change in family relationship and function. D. Ineffective coping is the inability to form valid appraisal of the stressor or inability to use available resources
23.
Answer: (B)
intolerance to change, disturbed relatedness, stereotypes
These are manifestations of autistic disorder. A. These manifestations are noted in Oppositional Defiant Disorder, a disruptive disorder among children. C. These are manifestations of Attention Deficit Disorder D. These are the manifestations of Conduct Disorder
These are manifestations of autistic disorder. A. These manifestations are noted in Oppositional Defiant Disorder, a disruptive disorder among children. C. These are manifestations of Attention Deficit Disorder D. These are the manifestations of Conduct Disorder
24.
Answer: (D)
Rearrange the environment to activate the child
The child with autistic disorder does not want change. Maintaining a consistent environment is therapeutic. A. Angry outburst can be rechannelled through safe activities. B. Acceptance enhances a trusting relationship. C. Ensure safety from self-destructive behaviors like head banging and hair pulling.
The child with autistic disorder does not want change. Maintaining a consistent environment is therapeutic. A. Angry outburst can be rechannelled through safe activities. B. Acceptance enhances a trusting relationship. C. Ensure safety from self-destructive behaviors like head banging and hair pulling.
25.
Answer: (C)
Pre-operational
Pre-operational stage (2-7 years) is the stage when the use of language, the use of symbols and the concept of time occur. A. Sensory-motor stage (0-2 years) is the stage when the child uses the senses in learning about the self and the environment through exploration. B. Concrete operations (7-12 years) when inductive reasoning develops. D. Formal operations (2 till adulthood) is when abstract thinking and deductive reasoning develop.
Pre-operational stage (2-7 years) is the stage when the use of language, the use of symbols and the concept of time occur. A. Sensory-motor stage (0-2 years) is the stage when the child uses the senses in learning about the self and the environment through exploration. B. Concrete operations (7-12 years) when inductive reasoning develops. D. Formal operations (2 till adulthood) is when abstract thinking and deductive reasoning develop.
PSYCHIATRIC
TEST 02
1. Which
is the best indicator of success in the long term management of the client?
a. His
symptoms are replaced by indifference to his feelings
b. He
participates in diversionary activities.
c. He
learns to verbalize his feelings and concerns
d. He
states that his behavior is irrational.
2. Situation:
A young woman is brought to the emergency room appearing depressed. The nurse
learned that her child died a year ago due to an accident. The
initial nursing diagnosis is dysfunctional grieving. The statement of the woman
that supports this diagnosis is:
a. “I
feel envious of mothers who have toddlers”
b. “I
haven’t been able to open the door and go into my baby’s room “
c. “I
watch other toddlers and think about their play activities and I cry.”
d. “I
often find myself thinking of how I could have prevented the death.
3. The
client said “I can’t even take care of my baby. I’m good for nothing.”
Which is the appropriate nursing diagnosis?
a. Ineffective
individual coping related to loss.
b. Impaired
verbal communication related to inadequate social skills.
c. Low
esteem related to failure in role performance
d. Impaired
social interaction related to repressed anger.
4. The
following medications will likely be prescribed for the client EXCEPT:
a. Prozac b. Tofranil c. Parnate d. Zyprexa
5. Which
is the highest priority in the post ECT care?
a. Observe
for confusion b. Monitor
respiratory status
c. Reorient
to time, place and person d. Document
the client’s response to the treatment
6. Situation:
A 27 year old writer is admitted for the second time accompanied by his wife.
He is demanding, arrogant talked fast and hyperactive. Initially the nurse
should plan this for a manic client:
a. set
realistic limits to the client’s behavior
b. repeat
verbal instructions as often as needed
c. allow
the client to get out feelings to relieve tension
d. assign
a staff to be with the client at all times to help maintain control
7. An
activity appropriate for the client is:
a. table
tennis b. painting c. chess d. cleaning
8. The
client is arrogant and manipulative. In ensuring a therapeutic milieu, the
nurse does one of the following:
a. Agree
on a consistent approach among the staff assigned to the client.
b. Suggest
that the client take a leading role in the social activities
c. Provide
the client with extra time for one on one sessions
d. Allow
the client to negotiate the plan of care
9. The
nurse exemplifies awareness of the rights of a client whose anger is escalating
by:
a. Taking
a directive role in verbalizing feelings b. Using
an authoritarian, confrontational approach
c. Putting
the client in a seclusion room d. Applying
mechanical restraints
10. A
client on Lithium has diarrhea and vomiting. What should the nurse do first:
a. Recognize
this as a drug interaction
b. Give
the client Cogentin
c. Reassure
the client that these are common side effects of lithium therapy
d. Hold
the next dose and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level
11. Situation:
A widow age 28, whose husband died one year ago due to AIDS, has just been told
that she has AIDS. Pamela says to the nurse, “Why me? How could God
do this to me?” This reaction is one of:
a. Depression b. Denial c. anger d. bargaining
12. The
nurse’s therapeutic response is:
a. “I
will refer you to a clergy who can help you understand what is happening to
you.”
b. “
It isn’t fair that an innocent like you will suffer from AIDS.”
c. “That
is a negative attitude.”
d. ”It
must really be frustrating for you. How can I best help you?”
13. One
morning the nurse sees the client in a depressed mood. The nurse asks her “What
are you thinking about?” This communication technique is:
a. focusing b. validating c. reflecting d. giving
broad opening
14. The
client says to the nurse ” Pray for me” and entrusts her wedding ring to the
nurse. The nurse knows that this may signal which of the following:
a. anxiety b. suicidal
ideation c. Major
depression d. Hopelessness
15. Which
of the following interventions should be prioritized in the care of the
suicidal client?
a. Remove
all potentially harmful items from the client’s room.
b. Allow
the client to express feelings of hopelessness.
c. Note
the client’s capabilities to increase self esteem.
d. Set
a “no suicide” contract with the client.
16. Situation:
A 14 year old male was admitted to a medical ward due to bronchial asthma after
learning that his mother was leaving soon for U.K. to work as nurse.
The client has which of the following developmental focus:
a. Establishing
relationship with the opposite sex and career planning. b. Parental
and societal responsibilities.
c. Establishing
ones sense of competence in school.
d. Developing
initial commitments and collaboration in work
17. The
personality type of Ryan is:
a. conforming b. dependent c. perfectionist d. masochistic
18. The
nurse ensures a therapeutic environment for the client. Which of the following
best describes a therapeutic milieu?
a. A
therapy that rewards adaptive behavior b. A
cognitive approach to change behavior
c. A
living, learning or working environment. d. A
permissive and congenial environment
19. Included
as priority of care for the client will be:
a. Encourage
verbalization of concerns instead of demonstrating them through the body
b. Divert
attention to ward activities
c. Place
in semi-fowlers position and render O2 inhalation as ordered
d. Help
her recognize that her physical condition has an emotional component
20. The
client is concerned about his coming discharge, manifested by being unusually
sad. Which is the most therapeutic approach by the nurse?
a. “You
are much better than when you were admitted so there’s no reason to worry.”
b. “What
would you like to do now that you’re about to go home?”
c. “You
seem to have concerns about going home.”
d. “Aren’t
you glad that you’re going home soon?”
21. Situation:
The nurse may encounter clients with concerns on sexuality. The most basic
factor in the intervention with clients in the area of sexuality is:
a. Knowledge
about sexuality. b. Experience
in dealing with clients with sexual problems
c. Comfort
with one’s sexuality d. Ability
to communicate effectively
22. Which
of the following statements is true for gender identity disorder?
a. It
is the sexual pleasure derived from inanimate objects.
b. It
is the pleasure derived from being humiliated and made to suffer
c. It
is the pleasure of shocking the victim with exposure of the genitalia
d. It
is the desire to live or involve in reactions of the opposite sex
23. The
sexual response cycle in which the sexual interest continues to build:
a. Sexual
Desire b. Sexual
arousal c. Orgasm d. Resolution
24. The
inability to maintain the physiologic requirements in sexual intercourse is:
a. Sexual
Desire Disorder b. Sexual
Arousal Disorder
c. Orgasm
Disorder d. Sexual
Pain disorder
25. The
nurse asks a client to roll up his sleeves so she can take his blood pressure.
The client replies “If you want I can go naked for you.” The most therapeutic
response by the nurse is:
a. “You’re
attractive but I’m not interested.”
b. “You
wouldn’t be the first that I will see naked.”
c. “I
will report you to the guard if you don’t control yourself.”
d. “I
only need access to your arm. Putting up your sleeve is fine.”
Answer
1.
Answer: (C) He
learns to verbalize his feelings and concerns
C. The client is encouraged to talk about his feelings and concerns instead of using body symptoms to manage his stressors. A. The client is encouraged to acknowledge feelings rather than being indifferent to her feelings. B. Participation in activities diverts the client’s attention away from his bodily concerns but this is not the best indicator of success. D. Help the client recognize that his physical symptoms occur because of or are exacerbated by specific stressor, not as irrational.
C. The client is encouraged to talk about his feelings and concerns instead of using body symptoms to manage his stressors. A. The client is encouraged to acknowledge feelings rather than being indifferent to her feelings. B. Participation in activities diverts the client’s attention away from his bodily concerns but this is not the best indicator of success. D. Help the client recognize that his physical symptoms occur because of or are exacerbated by specific stressor, not as irrational.
2.
Answer: (B) “I
haven’t been able to open the door and go into my baby’s room “
This indicates denial. This defense is adaptive as an initial reaction to loss but an extended, unsuccessful use of denial is dysfunctional. A. This indicates acknowledgement of the loss. Expressing feelings openly is acceptable. C. This indicates the stage of depression in the grieving process. D. Remembering both positive and negative aspects of the deceased love one signals successful mourning.
This indicates denial. This defense is adaptive as an initial reaction to loss but an extended, unsuccessful use of denial is dysfunctional. A. This indicates acknowledgement of the loss. Expressing feelings openly is acceptable. C. This indicates the stage of depression in the grieving process. D. Remembering both positive and negative aspects of the deceased love one signals successful mourning.
3.
Answer: (C) Low
esteem related to failure in role performance
This indicates the client’s negative self evaluation. A sense of worthlessness may accompany depression. A,B and D are not relevant. The cues do not indicate inability to use coping resources, decreased ability to transmit/process symbols, nor insufficient quality of social exchange
This indicates the client’s negative self evaluation. A sense of worthlessness may accompany depression. A,B and D are not relevant. The cues do not indicate inability to use coping resources, decreased ability to transmit/process symbols, nor insufficient quality of social exchange
4.
Answer: (D)
Zyprexa
This is an antipsychotic. A. This is a SSRI antidepressant. B. This antidepressant belongs to the Tricyclic group. C. This is a MAOI antidepressant.
This is an antipsychotic. A. This is a SSRI antidepressant. B. This antidepressant belongs to the Tricyclic group. C. This is a MAOI antidepressant.
5.
Answer: (B) Monitor
respiratory status
A side effect of ECT which is life threatening is respiratory arrest. A and C. Confusion and disorientation are side effects of ECT but these are not the highest priority.
A side effect of ECT which is life threatening is respiratory arrest. A and C. Confusion and disorientation are side effects of ECT but these are not the highest priority.
6.
Answer: (A) set
realistic limits to the client’s behavior
The manic client is hyperactive and may engage in injurious activities. A quiet environment and consistent and firm limits should be set to ensure safety. B. Clear, concise directions are given because of the distractibility of the client but this is not the priority. C. The manic client tend to externalize hostile feelings, however only non-destructive methods of expression should be allowed D. Nurses set limit as needed. Assigning a staff to be with the client at all times is not realistic.
The manic client is hyperactive and may engage in injurious activities. A quiet environment and consistent and firm limits should be set to ensure safety. B. Clear, concise directions are given because of the distractibility of the client but this is not the priority. C. The manic client tend to externalize hostile feelings, however only non-destructive methods of expression should be allowed D. Nurses set limit as needed. Assigning a staff to be with the client at all times is not realistic.
7.
Answer: (D)
cleaning
The client’s excess energy can be rechanelled through physical activities that are not competitive like cleaning. This is also a way to dissipate tension. A. Tennis is a competitive activity which can stimulate the client.
The client’s excess energy can be rechanelled through physical activities that are not competitive like cleaning. This is also a way to dissipate tension. A. Tennis is a competitive activity which can stimulate the client.
8.
Answer: (A) Agree on
a consistent approach among the staff assigned to the client.
A consistent firm approach is appropriate. This is a therapeutic way of to handle attempts of exploiting the weakness in others or create conflicts among the staff. Bargaining should not be allowed. B. This is not therapeutic because the client tends to control and dominate others. C. Limits are set for interaction time. D. Allowing the client to negotiate may reinforce manipulative behavior.
A consistent firm approach is appropriate. This is a therapeutic way of to handle attempts of exploiting the weakness in others or create conflicts among the staff. Bargaining should not be allowed. B. This is not therapeutic because the client tends to control and dominate others. C. Limits are set for interaction time. D. Allowing the client to negotiate may reinforce manipulative behavior.
9.
Answer: (A) Taking a
directive role in verbalizing feelings
The client has the right to be free from unnecessary restraints. Verbalization of feelings or “talking down” in a non-threatening environment is helpful to relieve the client’s anger. B. This is a threatening approach. C and D. Seclusion and application restraints are done only when less restrictive measures have failed to contain the client’s anger.
The client has the right to be free from unnecessary restraints. Verbalization of feelings or “talking down” in a non-threatening environment is helpful to relieve the client’s anger. B. This is a threatening approach. C and D. Seclusion and application restraints are done only when less restrictive measures have failed to contain the client’s anger.
10.
Answer: (D) Hold the
next dose and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level
Diarrhea and vomiting are manifestations of Lithium toxicity. The next dose of lithium should be withheld and test is done to validate the observation. A. The manifestations are not due to drug interaction. B. Cogentin is used to manage the extra pyramidal symptom side effects of antipsychotics. C. The common side effects of Lithium are fine hand tremors, nausea, polyuria and polydipsia.
Diarrhea and vomiting are manifestations of Lithium toxicity. The next dose of lithium should be withheld and test is done to validate the observation. A. The manifestations are not due to drug interaction. B. Cogentin is used to manage the extra pyramidal symptom side effects of antipsychotics. C. The common side effects of Lithium are fine hand tremors, nausea, polyuria and polydipsia.
11.
Answer: (C)
anger
Anger is experienced as reality sets in. This may either be directed to God, the deceased or displaced on others. A. Depression is a painful stage where the individual mourns for what was lost. B. Denial is the first stage of the grieving process evidenced by the statement “No, it can’t be true.” The individual does not acknowledge that the loss has occurred to protect self from the psychological pain of the loss. D. In bargaining the individual holds out hope for additional alternatives to forestall the loss, evidenced by the statement “If only…”
Anger is experienced as reality sets in. This may either be directed to God, the deceased or displaced on others. A. Depression is a painful stage where the individual mourns for what was lost. B. Denial is the first stage of the grieving process evidenced by the statement “No, it can’t be true.” The individual does not acknowledge that the loss has occurred to protect self from the psychological pain of the loss. D. In bargaining the individual holds out hope for additional alternatives to forestall the loss, evidenced by the statement “If only…”
12.
Answer: (D) ”It must
really be frustrating for you. How can I best help you?”
This response reflects the pain due to loss. A helping relationship can be forged by showing empathy and concern. A. This is not therapeutic since it passes the buck or responsibility to the clergy. B. This response is not therapeutic because it gives the client the impression that she is right which prevents the client from reconsidering her thoughts. C. This statement passes judgment on the client.
This response reflects the pain due to loss. A helping relationship can be forged by showing empathy and concern. A. This is not therapeutic since it passes the buck or responsibility to the clergy. B. This response is not therapeutic because it gives the client the impression that she is right which prevents the client from reconsidering her thoughts. C. This statement passes judgment on the client.
13.
Answer: (D) giving
broad opening
Broad opening technique allows the client to take the initiative in introducing the topic. A,B and C are all therapeutic techniques but these are not exemplified by the nurse’s statement.
Broad opening technique allows the client to take the initiative in introducing the topic. A,B and C are all therapeutic techniques but these are not exemplified by the nurse’s statement.
14.
Answer: (B) suicidal
ideation
The client’s statement is a verbal cue of suicidal ideation not anxiety. While suicide is common among clients with major depression, this occurs when their depression starts to lift. Hopelessness indicates no alternatives available and may lead to suicide, the statement and non verbal cue of the client indicate suicide.
The client’s statement is a verbal cue of suicidal ideation not anxiety. While suicide is common among clients with major depression, this occurs when their depression starts to lift. Hopelessness indicates no alternatives available and may lead to suicide, the statement and non verbal cue of the client indicate suicide.
15.
Answer: (A) Remove
all potentially harmful items from the client’s room.
Accessibility of the means of suicide increases the lethality. Allowing patient to express feelings and setting a no suicide contract are interventions for suicidal client but blocking the means of suicide is priority. Increasing self esteem is an intervention for depressed clients bur not specifically for suicide.
Accessibility of the means of suicide increases the lethality. Allowing patient to express feelings and setting a no suicide contract are interventions for suicidal client but blocking the means of suicide is priority. Increasing self esteem is an intervention for depressed clients bur not specifically for suicide.
16.
Answer: (A)
Establishing relationship with the opposite sex and career planning.
The client belongs to the adolescent stage. The adolescent establishes his sense of identity by making decisions regarding familial, occupational and social roles. The adolescent emancipates himself from the family and decides what career to pursue, what set of friends to have and what value system to uphold. B. This refers to the middle adulthood stage concerned with transmitting his values to the next generation to ensure his immortality through the perpetuation of his culture. C. This reflects school age which is concerned with the pursuit of knowledge and skills to deal with the environment both in the present and in the future. D. The stage of young adulthood is concerned with development of intimate relationship with the opposite sex, establishment of a safe and congenial family environment and building of one’s lifework.
The client belongs to the adolescent stage. The adolescent establishes his sense of identity by making decisions regarding familial, occupational and social roles. The adolescent emancipates himself from the family and decides what career to pursue, what set of friends to have and what value system to uphold. B. This refers to the middle adulthood stage concerned with transmitting his values to the next generation to ensure his immortality through the perpetuation of his culture. C. This reflects school age which is concerned with the pursuit of knowledge and skills to deal with the environment both in the present and in the future. D. The stage of young adulthood is concerned with development of intimate relationship with the opposite sex, establishment of a safe and congenial family environment and building of one’s lifework.
17.
Answer: (B)
dependent
A client with dependent personality is predisposed to develop asthma. A. The conforming non-assertive client is predisposed to develop hypertension because of the tendency to repress rage. C. The perfectionist and compulsive tend to develop migraine. D. The masochistic, self sacrificing type are prone to develop rheumatoid arthritis.
A client with dependent personality is predisposed to develop asthma. A. The conforming non-assertive client is predisposed to develop hypertension because of the tendency to repress rage. C. The perfectionist and compulsive tend to develop migraine. D. The masochistic, self sacrificing type are prone to develop rheumatoid arthritis.
18.
Answer: (C) A
living, learning or working environment.
A therapeutic milieu refers to a broad conceptual approach in which all aspects of the environment are channeled to provide a therapeutic environment for the client. The six environmental elements include structure, safety, norms, limit setting, balance and unit modification. A. Behavioral approach in psychiatric care is based on the premise that behavior can be learned or unlearned through the use of reward and punishment. B. Cognitive approach to change behavior is done by correcting distorted perceptions and irrational beliefs to correct maladaptive behaviors. D. This is not congruent with therapeutic milieu.
A therapeutic milieu refers to a broad conceptual approach in which all aspects of the environment are channeled to provide a therapeutic environment for the client. The six environmental elements include structure, safety, norms, limit setting, balance and unit modification. A. Behavioral approach in psychiatric care is based on the premise that behavior can be learned or unlearned through the use of reward and punishment. B. Cognitive approach to change behavior is done by correcting distorted perceptions and irrational beliefs to correct maladaptive behaviors. D. This is not congruent with therapeutic milieu.
19.
Answer: (C) Place in
semi-fowlers position and render O2 inhalation as ordered
Since psychopysiologic disorder has organic basis, priority intervention is directed towards disease-specific management. Failure to address the medical condition of the client may be a life threat. A and B. The client has physical symptom that is adversely affected by psychological factors. Verbalization of feelings in a non threatening environment and involvement in relaxing activities are adaptive way of dealing with stressors. However, these are not the priority. D. Helping the client connect the physical symptoms with the emotional problems can be done when the client is ready.
Since psychopysiologic disorder has organic basis, priority intervention is directed towards disease-specific management. Failure to address the medical condition of the client may be a life threat. A and B. The client has physical symptom that is adversely affected by psychological factors. Verbalization of feelings in a non threatening environment and involvement in relaxing activities are adaptive way of dealing with stressors. However, these are not the priority. D. Helping the client connect the physical symptoms with the emotional problems can be done when the client is ready.
20.
Answer: (C) “You
seem to have concerns about going home.”
This statement reflects how the client feels. Showing empathy can encourage the client to talk which is important as an alternative more adaptive way of coping with stressors.. A. Giving false reassurance is not therapeutic. B. While this technique explores plans after discharge, it does not focus on expression of feelings. D. This close ended question does not encourage verbalization of feelings.
This statement reflects how the client feels. Showing empathy can encourage the client to talk which is important as an alternative more adaptive way of coping with stressors.. A. Giving false reassurance is not therapeutic. B. While this technique explores plans after discharge, it does not focus on expression of feelings. D. This close ended question does not encourage verbalization of feelings.
21.
Answer: (C) Comfort
with one’s sexuality
The nurse must be accepting, empathetic and non-judgmental to patients who disclose concerns regarding sexuality. This can happen only when the nurse has reconciled and accepted her feelings and beliefs related to sexuality. A,B and D are important considerations but these are not the priority.
The nurse must be accepting, empathetic and non-judgmental to patients who disclose concerns regarding sexuality. This can happen only when the nurse has reconciled and accepted her feelings and beliefs related to sexuality. A,B and D are important considerations but these are not the priority.
22.
Answer: (D) It is
the desire to live or involve in reactions of the opposite sex
Gender identity disorder is a strong and persistent desire to be the other sex. A. This is fetishism. B. This refers to masochism. C. This describes exhibitionism.
Gender identity disorder is a strong and persistent desire to be the other sex. A. This is fetishism. B. This refers to masochism. C. This describes exhibitionism.
23.
Answer: (B) Sexual
arousal
Sexual arousal or excitement refers to attaining and maintaining the physiologic requirements for sexual intercourse. A. Sexual Desire refers to the ability, interest or willingness for sexual stimulation. C. Orgasm refers to the peak of the sexual response where the female has vaginal contractions for the female and ejaculatory contractions for the male. D. Resolution is the final phase of the sexual response in which the organs and the body systems gradually return to the unaroused state.
Sexual arousal or excitement refers to attaining and maintaining the physiologic requirements for sexual intercourse. A. Sexual Desire refers to the ability, interest or willingness for sexual stimulation. C. Orgasm refers to the peak of the sexual response where the female has vaginal contractions for the female and ejaculatory contractions for the male. D. Resolution is the final phase of the sexual response in which the organs and the body systems gradually return to the unaroused state.
24.
Answer: (B) Sexual
Arousal Disorder
This describes sexual arousal disorder. A. Sexual Desire Disorder refers to the persistent and recurrent lack of desire or willingness for sexual intercourse. C. Orgasm Disorder is the inability to complete the sexual response cycle because of the inability to achieve an orgasm. D. Sexual Pain Disorder is characterized by genital pain before, during or after sexual intercourse.
This describes sexual arousal disorder. A. Sexual Desire Disorder refers to the persistent and recurrent lack of desire or willingness for sexual intercourse. C. Orgasm Disorder is the inability to complete the sexual response cycle because of the inability to achieve an orgasm. D. Sexual Pain Disorder is characterized by genital pain before, during or after sexual intercourse.
25.
Answer: (D) “I only
need access to your arm. Putting up your sleeve is fine.”
The nurse needs to deal with the client with sexually connotative behavior in a casual, matter of fact way. A and B. These responses are not therapeutic because they are challenging and rejecting. C. Threatening the client is not therapeutic.
The nurse needs to deal with the client with sexually connotative behavior in a casual, matter of fact way. A and B. These responses are not therapeutic because they are challenging and rejecting. C. Threatening the client is not therapeutic.
1. Situation:
Knowledge and skills in the care of violent clients is vital in the psychiatric
unit. A nurse observes that a client with a potential for violence is agitated,
pacing up and down the hallway and making aggressive remarks. Which of the
following statements is most appropriate to make to this patient?
a. What
is causing you to become agitated?
b. You
need to stop that behavior now.
c. You
will need to be restrained if you do not change your behavior.
d. You
will need to be placed in seclusion.
2. The
nurse closely observes the client who has been displaying aggressive behavior.
The nurse observes that the client’s anger is escalating. Which approach is
least helpful for the client at this time?
a. Acknowledge
the client’s behavior b. Maintain
a safe distance from the client
c. Assist
the client to an area that is quiet d. Initiate
confinement measures
3. The
charge nurse of a psychiatric unit is planning the client assignment for the
day. The most appropriate staff to be assigned to a client with a potential for
violence is which of the following:
a. A
timid nurse b. A
mature experienced nurse
c. an
inexperienced nurse d. a
soft spoken nurse
4. The
nurse exemplifies awareness of the rights of a client whose anger is escalating
by:
a. Taking
a directive role in verbalizing feelings b. Using
an authoritarian, confrontational approach
c. Putting
the client in a seclusion room d. Applying
mechanical restraints
5. The
client jumps up and throws a chair out of the window. He was restrained after
his behavior can no longer be controlled by the staff. Which of these
documentations indicates the safeguarding of the patient’s rights?
a. There
was a doctor’s order for restraints/seclusion b. The
patient’s rights were explained to him.
c. The
staff observed confidentiality d. The
staff carried out less restrictive measures but were unsuccessful.
6. Situation:
Clients with personality disorders have difficulties in their social and
occupational functions.
Clients with personality disorder will most likely:
Clients with personality disorder will most likely:
a. recover
with therapeutic intervention
b. respond
to antianxiety medication
c. manifest
enduring patterns of inflexible behaviors
d. Seek
treatment willingly from some personally distressing symptoms
7. A
client tends to be insensitive to others, engages in abusive behaviors and does
not have a sense of remorse. Which personality disorder is he likely to have?
a. Narcissistic b. Paranoid c. Histrionic d. Antisocial
8. The
client joins a support group and frequently preaches against abuse, is
demonstrating the use of:
a. denial b. reaction
formation c. rationalization d. projection
9. A
teenage girl is diagnosed to have borderline personality disorder. Which
manifestations support the diagnosis?
a. Lack
of self esteem, strong dependency needs and impulsive behavior
b. social
withdrawal, inadequacy, sensitivity to rejection and criticism
c. Suspicious,
hypervigilance and coldness
d. Preoccupation
with perfectionism, orderliness and need for control
10. The
plan of care for clients with borderline personality should include:
a. Limit
setting and flexibility in schedule b. Giving
medications to prevent acting out
c. Restricting
her from other clients d. Ensuring
she adheres to certain restrictions
11. Situation:
A 42 year old male client, is admitted in the ward because of bizarre
behaviors. He is given a diagnosis of schizophrenia paranoid type. The
client should have achieved the developmental task of:
a. Trust
vs. mistrust b. Industry
vs. inferiority
c. Generativity
vs. stagnation d. Ego
integrity vs. despair
12. Clients
who are suspicious primarily use projection for which purpose:
a. deny
reality b. to
deal with feelings and thoughts that are not acceptable
c. to
show resentment towards others d. manipulate
others
13. The
client says “ the NBI is out to get me.” The nurse’s best response is:
a. “The
NBI is not out to catch you.”
b. “I
don’t believe that.”
c. “I
don’t know anything about that. You are afraid of being harmed.”
d. “
What made you think of that.”
14. The
client on Haldol has pill rolling tremors and muscle rigidity. He is likely
manifesting:
a. tardive
dyskinesia b. Pseudoparkinsonism c. akinesia d. dystonia
15. The
client is very hostile toward one of the staff for no apparent reason. The
client is manifesting:
a. Splitting b. Transference c. Countertransference d. Resistance
16. Situation:
An 18 year old female was sexually attacked while on her wayhome from work. She
is brought to the hospital by her mother. Rape is an example of which type of
crisis:
a. Situational b. Adventitious c. Developmental d. Internal
17. During
the initial care of rape victims the following are to be considered EXCEPT:
a. Assure
privacy. b. Touch
the client to show acceptance and empathy
c. Accompany
the client in the examination room. d. Maintain
a non-judgmental approach.
18. The
nurse acts as a patient advocate when she does one of the following:
a. She
encourages the client to express her feeling regarding her experience.
b. She
assesses the client for injuries.
c. She
postpones the physical assessment until the client is calm
d. Explains
to the client that her reactions are normal
19. Crisis
intervention carried out to the client has this primary goal:
a. Assist
the client to express her feelings b. Help
her identify her resources
c. Support
her adaptive coping skills d. Help
her return to her pre-rape level of function
20. Five
months after the incident the client complains of difficulty to concentrate,
poor appetite, inability to sleep and guilt. She is likely suffering from:
a. Adjustment
disorder b. Somatoform
Disorder
c. Generalized
Anxiety Disorder d. Post
traumatic disorder
21. Situation:
A 29 year old client newly diagnosed with breast cancer is pacing, with rapid
speech headache and inability to focus with what the doctor was
saying. The nurse assesses the level of anxiety as:
a. Mild b. Moderate c. Severe d. Panic
22. Anxiety
is caused by:
a. an
objective threat b. a
subjectively perceived threat
c. hostility
turned to the self d. masked
depression
23. It
would be most helpful for the nurse to deal with a client with severe anxiety
by:
a. Give
specific instructions using speak in concise statements.
b. Ask
the client to identify the cause of her anxiety.
c. Explain
in detail the plan of care developed
d. Urge
the client to focus on what the nurse is saying
24. Which
of the following medications will likely be ordered for the client?”
a. Prozac b. Valium c. Risperdal d. Lithium
25. Which
of the following is included in the health teachings among clients receiving
Valium?:
a. Avoid
foods rich in tyramine. b. Take
the medication after meals.
c. It
is safe to stop it anytime after long term use. d. Double
up the dose if the client forgets her medication.
Answer
1.
Answer: (A) What is
causing you to become agitated?
In a non-violent aggressive behavior, help the client identify the stressor or the true object of hostility. This helps reveal unresolved issues so that they may be confronted. B. Pacing is a tension relieving measure for an agitated client. C. This is a threatening statement that can heighten the client’s tension. D. Seclusion is used when less restrictive measures have failed.
In a non-violent aggressive behavior, help the client identify the stressor or the true object of hostility. This helps reveal unresolved issues so that they may be confronted. B. Pacing is a tension relieving measure for an agitated client. C. This is a threatening statement that can heighten the client’s tension. D. Seclusion is used when less restrictive measures have failed.
2.
Answer: (D) Initiate
confinement measures
The proper procedure for dealing with harmful behavior is to first try to calm patient verbally. . When verbal and psychopharmacologic interventions are not adequate to handle the aggressiveness, seclusion or restraints may be applicable. A, B and C are appropriate approaches during the escalation phase of aggression.
The proper procedure for dealing with harmful behavior is to first try to calm patient verbally. . When verbal and psychopharmacologic interventions are not adequate to handle the aggressiveness, seclusion or restraints may be applicable. A, B and C are appropriate approaches during the escalation phase of aggression.
3.
Answer: (B) A mature
experienced nurse
The unstable, aggressive client should be assigned to the most experienced nurse. A, C and D. A shy, inexperienced, soft spoken nurse may feel intimidated by the angry patient.
The unstable, aggressive client should be assigned to the most experienced nurse. A, C and D. A shy, inexperienced, soft spoken nurse may feel intimidated by the angry patient.
4.
Answer: (A) Taking a
directive role in verbalizing feelings
Taking a directive role in the client’s verbalization of feelings can deescalate the client’s anger. B. A confrontational approach can be threatening and adds to the client’s tension. C and D. Use of restraints and isolation may be required if less restrictive interventions are unsuccessful.
Taking a directive role in the client’s verbalization of feelings can deescalate the client’s anger. B. A confrontational approach can be threatening and adds to the client’s tension. C and D. Use of restraints and isolation may be required if less restrictive interventions are unsuccessful.
5.
Answer: (D) The
staff carried out less restrictive measures but were unsuccessful.
This documentation indicates that the client has been placed on restraints after the least restrictive measures failed in containing the client’s violent behavior.
This documentation indicates that the client has been placed on restraints after the least restrictive measures failed in containing the client’s violent behavior.
6.
Answer: (C) manifest
enduring patterns of inflexible behaviors
Personality disorders are characterized by inflexible traits and characteristics that are lifelong. A and D. This disorder is manifested by life-long patterns of behavior. The client with this disorder will not likely present himself for treatment unless something has gone wrong in his life so he may not recover from therapeutic intervention. B. Medications are generally not recommended for personality disorders.
Personality disorders are characterized by inflexible traits and characteristics that are lifelong. A and D. This disorder is manifested by life-long patterns of behavior. The client with this disorder will not likely present himself for treatment unless something has gone wrong in his life so he may not recover from therapeutic intervention. B. Medications are generally not recommended for personality disorders.
7.
Answer: (D)
Antisocial
These are the characteristics of an individual with antisocial personality. A. Narcissistic personality disorder is characterized by grandiosity and a need for constant admiration from others. B. Individuals with paranoid personality demonstrate a pattern of distrust and suspiciousness and interprets others motives as threatening. C. Individuals with histrionic have excessive emotionality, and attention-seeking behaviors.
These are the characteristics of an individual with antisocial personality. A. Narcissistic personality disorder is characterized by grandiosity and a need for constant admiration from others. B. Individuals with paranoid personality demonstrate a pattern of distrust and suspiciousness and interprets others motives as threatening. C. Individuals with histrionic have excessive emotionality, and attention-seeking behaviors.
8.
Answer: (B) reaction
formation
Reaction formation is the adoption of behavior or feelings that are exactly opposite of one’s true emotions. A. Denial is refusal to accept a painful reality. C. Rationalization is attempting to justify one’s behavior by presenting reasons that sounds logical. D. Projection is attributing of one’s behaviors and feelings to another person.
Reaction formation is the adoption of behavior or feelings that are exactly opposite of one’s true emotions. A. Denial is refusal to accept a painful reality. C. Rationalization is attempting to justify one’s behavior by presenting reasons that sounds logical. D. Projection is attributing of one’s behaviors and feelings to another person.
9.
Answer: (A) Lack
of self esteem, strong dependency needs and impulsive behavior
These are the characteristics of client with borderline personality. B. This describes the avoidant personality. C. These are the characteristics of a client with paranoid personality D. This describes the obsessive compulsive personality
These are the characteristics of client with borderline personality. B. This describes the avoidant personality. C. These are the characteristics of a client with paranoid personality D. This describes the obsessive compulsive personality
10.
Answer: (D) Ensuring
she adheres to certain restrictions
The client is manipulative. The client must be informed about the policies, expectations, rules and regulation upon admission. A. Limits should be firmly and consistently implemented. Flexibility and bargaining are not therapeutic in dealing with a manipulative client. B. There is no specific medication prescribed for this condition. C. This is not part of the care plan. Interaction with other clients are allowed but the client should be observed and given limits in her attempt to manipulate and dominate others.
The client is manipulative. The client must be informed about the policies, expectations, rules and regulation upon admission. A. Limits should be firmly and consistently implemented. Flexibility and bargaining are not therapeutic in dealing with a manipulative client. B. There is no specific medication prescribed for this condition. C. This is not part of the care plan. Interaction with other clients are allowed but the client should be observed and given limits in her attempt to manipulate and dominate others.
11.
Answer: (D) Ego
integrity vs. despair
The client belongs to the middle adulthood stage (30 to 65 yrs.) The developmental task generativity is characterized by concern and care for others. It is a productive and creative stage. (A) Infancy stage (0 – 18 mos.) is concerned with gratification of oral needs (B) School Age child (6 – 12 yrs.) is characterized by acquisition of school competencies and social skills (C) Late adulthood ( 60 and above) Concerned with reflection on the past and his contributions to others and face the future.
The client belongs to the middle adulthood stage (30 to 65 yrs.) The developmental task generativity is characterized by concern and care for others. It is a productive and creative stage. (A) Infancy stage (0 – 18 mos.) is concerned with gratification of oral needs (B) School Age child (6 – 12 yrs.) is characterized by acquisition of school competencies and social skills (C) Late adulthood ( 60 and above) Concerned with reflection on the past and his contributions to others and face the future.
12.
Answer: (B) to deal
with feelings and thoughts that are not acceptable
Projection is a defense mechanism where one attributes ones feelings and inadequacies to others to reduce anxiety. A. This is not true in all instances of projection C and D. This focuses on the self rather than others
Projection is a defense mechanism where one attributes ones feelings and inadequacies to others to reduce anxiety. A. This is not true in all instances of projection C and D. This focuses on the self rather than others
13.
Answer: (C) “I don’t
know anything about that. You are afraid of being harmed.”
This presents reality and acknowledges the clients feeling A and B. are not therapeutic responses because these disagree with the client’s false belief and makes the client feel challenged D. unnecessary exploration of the false
This presents reality and acknowledges the clients feeling A and B. are not therapeutic responses because these disagree with the client’s false belief and makes the client feel challenged D. unnecessary exploration of the false
14.
Answer: (B)
Pseudoparkinsonism
Pseudoparkinsonism is a side effect of antipsychotic drugs characterized by mask-like facies, pill rolling tremors, muscle rigidity A. Tardive dyskinesia is manifested by lip smacking, wormlike movement of the tongue C. Akinesia is characterized by feeling of weakness and muscle fatigue D. Dystonia is manifested by torticollis and rolling back of the eyes
Pseudoparkinsonism is a side effect of antipsychotic drugs characterized by mask-like facies, pill rolling tremors, muscle rigidity A. Tardive dyskinesia is manifested by lip smacking, wormlike movement of the tongue C. Akinesia is characterized by feeling of weakness and muscle fatigue D. Dystonia is manifested by torticollis and rolling back of the eyes
15.
Answer: (B)
Transference
Transference is a positive or negative feeling associated with a significant person in the client’s past that are unconsciously assigned to another A. Splitting is a defense mechanism commonly seen in a client with personality disorder in which the world is perceived as all good or all bad C. Counterttransference is a phenomenon where the nurse shifts feelings assigned to someone in her past to the patient D. Resistance is the client’s refusal to submit himself to the care of the nurse
Transference is a positive or negative feeling associated with a significant person in the client’s past that are unconsciously assigned to another A. Splitting is a defense mechanism commonly seen in a client with personality disorder in which the world is perceived as all good or all bad C. Counterttransference is a phenomenon where the nurse shifts feelings assigned to someone in her past to the patient D. Resistance is the client’s refusal to submit himself to the care of the nurse
16.
Answer: (B)
Adventitious
Adventitious crisis is a crisis involving a traumatic event. It is not part of everyday life. A. Situational crisis is from an external source that upset ones psychological equilibrium C and D. Are the same. They are transitional or developmental periods in life
Adventitious crisis is a crisis involving a traumatic event. It is not part of everyday life. A. Situational crisis is from an external source that upset ones psychological equilibrium C and D. Are the same. They are transitional or developmental periods in life
17.
Answer: (B) Touch
the client to show acceptance and empathy
The client finds touch intrusive and therefore should be avoided. A. Privacy is one of the rights of a victim of rape. C.The client is anxious. Accompanying the client in a quiet room ensures safety and offers emotional support. D. Guilt feeling is common among rape victims. They should not be blamed.
The client finds touch intrusive and therefore should be avoided. A. Privacy is one of the rights of a victim of rape. C.The client is anxious. Accompanying the client in a quiet room ensures safety and offers emotional support. D. Guilt feeling is common among rape victims. They should not be blamed.
18.
Answer: (C) She
postpones the physical assessment until the client is calm
The nurse acts as a patient advocate as she protects the client from psychological harm A. The nurse acts a a counselor B. The nurse acts as a technician D. This exemplifies the role of a teacher
The nurse acts as a patient advocate as she protects the client from psychological harm A. The nurse acts a a counselor B. The nurse acts as a technician D. This exemplifies the role of a teacher
19.
Answer: (D) Help her
return to her pre-rape level of function
The goal of crisis intervention to help the client return to her level of function prior to the crisis. A,B and C are interventions or strategies to attain the goal
The goal of crisis intervention to help the client return to her level of function prior to the crisis. A,B and C are interventions or strategies to attain the goal
20.
Answer: (D) Post
traumatic disorder
Post traumatic stress disorder is characterized by flashback, irritability, difficulty falling asleep and concentrating following an extremely traumatic event. This lasts for more that one month A. Adjustment disorder is the maladaptive reaction to stressful events characterized by anxiety, depression and work or social impairments. This occurs within 3 months after the event B. Somatoform disorders are anxiety related disorders characterized by presence of physical symptoms without demonstrable organic basis C. Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by chronic, excessive anxiety for at least 6 months
Post traumatic stress disorder is characterized by flashback, irritability, difficulty falling asleep and concentrating following an extremely traumatic event. This lasts for more that one month A. Adjustment disorder is the maladaptive reaction to stressful events characterized by anxiety, depression and work or social impairments. This occurs within 3 months after the event B. Somatoform disorders are anxiety related disorders characterized by presence of physical symptoms without demonstrable organic basis C. Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by chronic, excessive anxiety for at least 6 months
21.
Answer: (C)
Severe
The client’s manifestations indicate severe anxiety. A Mild anxiety is manifested by slight muscle tension, slight fidgeting, alertness, ability to concentrate and capable of problem solving. B. Moderate muscle tension, increased vital signs, periodic slow pacing, increased rate of speech and difficulty in concentrating are noted in moderate anxiety. D. Panic level of anxiety is characterized immobilization, incoherence, feeling of being overwhelmed and disorganization
The client’s manifestations indicate severe anxiety. A Mild anxiety is manifested by slight muscle tension, slight fidgeting, alertness, ability to concentrate and capable of problem solving. B. Moderate muscle tension, increased vital signs, periodic slow pacing, increased rate of speech and difficulty in concentrating are noted in moderate anxiety. D. Panic level of anxiety is characterized immobilization, incoherence, feeling of being overwhelmed and disorganization
22.
Answer: (B) a
subjectively perceived threat
Anxiety is caused by a subjectively perceived threat A. Fear is caused by an objective threat C. A depressed client internalizes hostility D. Mania is due to masked depression
Anxiety is caused by a subjectively perceived threat A. Fear is caused by an objective threat C. A depressed client internalizes hostility D. Mania is due to masked depression
23.
Answer: (A) Give
specific instructions using speak in concise statements.
The client has narrowed perceptual field. Lengthy explanations cannot be followed by the client. B. The client will not be able to identify the cause of anxiety C and D. The client has difficulty concentrating and will not be able to focus.
The client has narrowed perceptual field. Lengthy explanations cannot be followed by the client. B. The client will not be able to identify the cause of anxiety C and D. The client has difficulty concentrating and will not be able to focus.
24.
Answer: (B)
Valium
Antianxiety A. Antidepressant C. Antipsychotic D. Antimanic
Antianxiety A. Antidepressant C. Antipsychotic D. Antimanic
25.
Answer: (B) Take the
medication after meals.
Antianxiety medications cause G.I. upset so it should be taken after meals. A. This is specific for antidepressant MAOI. Taking tyramine rich food can cause hypertensive crisis. C. Valium causes dependency. In which case, the medication should be gradually withdrawn to prevent the occurrence of convulsion. D The dose of Valium should not be doubled if the previous dose was not taken. It can intensify the CNS depressant effects.
Antianxiety medications cause G.I. upset so it should be taken after meals. A. This is specific for antidepressant MAOI. Taking tyramine rich food can cause hypertensive crisis. C. Valium causes dependency. In which case, the medication should be gradually withdrawn to prevent the occurrence of convulsion. D The dose of Valium should not be doubled if the previous dose was not taken. It can intensify the CNS depressant effects.
1. Situation:
Knowledge and skills in the care of violent clients is vital in the psychiatric
unit. A nurse observes that a client with a potential for violence is agitated,
pacing up and down the hallway and making aggressive remarks. Which of the
following statements is most appropriate to make to this patient?
a. What
is causing you to become agitated?
b. You
need to stop that behavior now.
c. You
will need to be restrained if you do not change your behavior.
d. You
will need to be placed in seclusion.
2. The
nurse closely observes the client who has been displaying aggressive behavior.
The nurse observes that the client’s anger is escalating. Which approach is
least helpful for the client at this time?
a. Acknowledge
the client’s behavior b. Maintain
a safe distance from the client
c. Assist
the client to an area that is quiet d. Initiate
confinement measures
3. The
charge nurse of a psychiatric unit is planning the client assignment for the
day. The most appropriate staff to be assigned to a client with a potential for
violence is which of the following:
a. A
timid nurse b. A
mature experienced nurse
c. an
inexperienced nurse d. a
soft spoken nurse
4. The
nurse exemplifies awareness of the rights of a client whose anger is escalating
by:
a. Taking
a directive role in verbalizing feelings b. Using
an authoritarian, confrontational approach
c. Putting
the client in a seclusion room d. Applying
mechanical restraints
5. The
client jumps up and throws a chair out of the window. He was restrained after
his behavior can no longer be controlled by the staff. Which of these
documentations indicates the safeguarding of the patient’s rights?
a. There
was a doctor’s order for restraints/seclusion
b. The
patient’s rights were explained to him.
c. The
staff observed confidentiality
d. The
staff carried out less restrictive measures but were unsuccessful.
6. Situation:
Clients with personality disorders have difficulties in their social and
occupational functions.
Clients with personality disorder will most likely:
Clients with personality disorder will most likely:
a. recover
with therapeutic intervention
b. respond
to antianxiety medication
c. manifest
enduring patterns of inflexible behaviors
d. Seek
treatment willingly from some personally distressing symptoms
7. A
client tends to be insensitive to others, engages in abusive behaviors and does
not have a sense of remorse. Which personality disorder is he likely to have?
a. Narcissistic b. Paranoid c. Histrionic d. Antisocial
8. The
client joins a support group and frequently preaches against abuse, is
demonstrating the use of:
a. denial b. reaction
formation c. rationalization d. projection
9. A
teenage girl is diagnosed to have borderline personality disorder. Which
manifestations support the diagnosis?
a. Lack
of self esteem, strong dependency needs and impulsive behavior
b. social
withdrawal, inadequacy, sensitivity to rejection and criticism
c. Suspicious,
hypervigilance and coldness
d. Preoccupation
with perfectionism, orderliness and need for control
10. The
plan of care for clients with borderline personality should include:
a. Limit
setting and flexibility in schedule b. Giving
medications to prevent acting out
c. Restricting
her from other clients d. Ensuring
she adheres to certain restrictions
11. Situation:
A 42 year old male client, is admitted in the ward because of bizarre
behaviors. He is given a diagnosis of schizophrenia paranoid type. The
client should have achieved the developmental task of:
a. Trust
vs. mistrust b. Industry
vs. inferiority
c. Generativity
vs. stagnation d. Ego
integrity vs. despair
12. Clients
who are suspicious primarily use projection for which purpose:
a. deny
reality b. to
deal with feelings and thoughts that are not acceptable
c. to
show resentment towards others d. manipulate
others
13. The
client says “ the NBI is out to get me.” The nurse’s best response is:
a. “The
NBI is not out to catch you.” b. “I
don’t believe that.”
c. “I
don’t know anything about that. You are afraid of being harmed.” d. “
What made you think of that.”
14. The
client on Haldol has pill rolling tremors and muscle rigidity. He is likely
manifesting:
a. tardive
dyskinesia b. Pseudoparkinsonism c. akinesia d. dystonia
15. The
client is very hostile toward one of the staff for no apparent reason. The
client is manifesting:
a. Splitting b. Transference c. Countertransference d. Resistance
16. Situation:
An 18 year old female was sexually attacked while on her wayhome from work. She
is brought to the hospital by her mother. Rape is an example of which type of
crisis:
a. Situational b. Adventitious c. Developmental d. Internal
17. During
the initial care of rape victims the following are to be considered EXCEPT:
a. Assure
privacy. b. Touch
the client to show acceptance and empathy
c. Accompany
the client in the examination room. d. Maintain
a non-judgmental approach.
18. The
nurse acts as a patient advocate when she does one of the following:
a. She
encourages the client to express her feeling regarding her experience.
b. She
assesses the client for injuries.
c. She
postpones the physical assessment until the client is calm
d. Explains
to the client that her reactions are normal
19. Crisis
intervention carried out to the client has this primary goal:
a. Assist
the client to express her feelings b. Help
her identify her resources
c. Support
her adaptive coping skills d. Help
her return to her pre-rape level of function
20. Five
months after the incident the client complains of difficulty to concentrate,
poor appetite, inability to sleep and guilt. She is likely suffering from:
a. Adjustment
disorder b. Somatoform
Disorder
c. Generalized
Anxiety Disorder d. Post
traumatic disorder
21. Situation:
A 29 year old client newly diagnosed with breast cancer is pacing, with rapid
speech headache and inability to focus with what the doctor was
saying. The nurse assesses the level of anxiety as:
a. Mild b. Moderate c. Severe d. Panic
22. Anxiety
is caused by:
a. an
objective threat b. a
subjectively perceived threat
c. hostility
turned to the self d. masked
depression
23. It
would be most helpful for the nurse to deal with a client with severe anxiety
by:
a. Give
specific instructions using speak in concise statements.
b. Ask
the client to identify the cause of her anxiety.
c. Explain
in detail the plan of care developed
d. Urge
the client to focus on what the nurse is saying
24. Which
of the following medications will likely be ordered for the client?”
a. Prozac b. Valium c. Risperdal d. Lithium
25. Which
of the following is included in the health teachings among clients receiving
Valium?:
a. Avoid
foods rich in tyramine.
b. Take
the medication after meals.
c. It
is safe to stop it anytime after long term use.
d. Double
up the dose if the client forgets her medication.
Answer
1.
Answer: (A) What is
causing you to become agitated?
In a non-violent aggressive behavior, help the client identify the stressor or the true object of hostility. This helps reveal unresolved issues so that they may be confronted. B. Pacing is a tension relieving measure for an agitated client. C. This is a threatening statement that can heighten the client’s tension. D. Seclusion is used when less restrictive measures have failed.
In a non-violent aggressive behavior, help the client identify the stressor or the true object of hostility. This helps reveal unresolved issues so that they may be confronted. B. Pacing is a tension relieving measure for an agitated client. C. This is a threatening statement that can heighten the client’s tension. D. Seclusion is used when less restrictive measures have failed.
2.
Answer: (D) Initiate
confinement measures
The proper procedure for dealing with harmful behavior is to first try to calm patient verbally. . When verbal and psychopharmacologic interventions are not adequate to handle the aggressiveness, seclusion or restraints may be applicable. A, B and C are appropriate approaches during the escalation phase of aggression.
The proper procedure for dealing with harmful behavior is to first try to calm patient verbally. . When verbal and psychopharmacologic interventions are not adequate to handle the aggressiveness, seclusion or restraints may be applicable. A, B and C are appropriate approaches during the escalation phase of aggression.
3.
Answer: (B) A mature
experienced nurse
The unstable, aggressive client should be assigned to the most experienced nurse. A, C and D. A shy, inexperienced, soft spoken nurse may feel intimidated by the angry patient.
The unstable, aggressive client should be assigned to the most experienced nurse. A, C and D. A shy, inexperienced, soft spoken nurse may feel intimidated by the angry patient.
4.
Answer: (A) Taking a
directive role in verbalizing feelings
Taking a directive role in the client’s verbalization of feelings can deescalate the client’s anger. B. A confrontational approach can be threatening and adds to the client’s tension. C and D. Use of restraints and isolation may be required if less restrictive interventions are unsuccessful.
Taking a directive role in the client’s verbalization of feelings can deescalate the client’s anger. B. A confrontational approach can be threatening and adds to the client’s tension. C and D. Use of restraints and isolation may be required if less restrictive interventions are unsuccessful.
5.
Answer: (D) The
staff carried out less restrictive measures but were unsuccessful.
This documentation indicates that the client has been placed on restraints after the least restrictive measures failed in containing the client’s violent behavior.
This documentation indicates that the client has been placed on restraints after the least restrictive measures failed in containing the client’s violent behavior.
6.
Answer: (C) manifest
enduring patterns of inflexible behaviors
Personality disorders are characterized by inflexible traits and characteristics that are lifelong. A and D. This disorder is manifested by life-long patterns of behavior. The client with this disorder will not likely present himself for treatment unless something has gone wrong in his life so he may not recover from therapeutic intervention. B. Medications are generally not recommended for personality disorders.
Personality disorders are characterized by inflexible traits and characteristics that are lifelong. A and D. This disorder is manifested by life-long patterns of behavior. The client with this disorder will not likely present himself for treatment unless something has gone wrong in his life so he may not recover from therapeutic intervention. B. Medications are generally not recommended for personality disorders.
7.
Answer: (D) Antisocial
These are the characteristics of an individual with antisocial personality. A. Narcissistic personality disorder is characterized by grandiosity and a need for constant admiration from others. B. Individuals with paranoid personality demonstrate a pattern of distrust and suspiciousness and interprets others motives as threatening. C. Individuals with histrionic have excessive emotionality, and attention-seeking behaviors.
These are the characteristics of an individual with antisocial personality. A. Narcissistic personality disorder is characterized by grandiosity and a need for constant admiration from others. B. Individuals with paranoid personality demonstrate a pattern of distrust and suspiciousness and interprets others motives as threatening. C. Individuals with histrionic have excessive emotionality, and attention-seeking behaviors.
8.
Answer: (B) reaction
formation
Reaction formation is the adoption of behavior or feelings that are exactly opposite of one’s true emotions. A. Denial is refusal to accept a painful reality. C. Rationalization is attempting to justify one’s behavior by presenting reasons that sounds logical. D. Projection is attributing of one’s behaviors and feelings to another person.
Reaction formation is the adoption of behavior or feelings that are exactly opposite of one’s true emotions. A. Denial is refusal to accept a painful reality. C. Rationalization is attempting to justify one’s behavior by presenting reasons that sounds logical. D. Projection is attributing of one’s behaviors and feelings to another person.
9.
Answer: (A) Lack
of self esteem, strong dependency needs and impulsive behavior
These are the characteristics of client with borderline personality. B. This describes the avoidant personality. C. These are the characteristics of a client with paranoid personality D. This describes the obsessive compulsive personality
These are the characteristics of client with borderline personality. B. This describes the avoidant personality. C. These are the characteristics of a client with paranoid personality D. This describes the obsessive compulsive personality
10.
Answer: (D) Ensuring
she adheres to certain restrictions
The client is manipulative. The client must be informed about the policies, expectations, rules and regulation upon admission. A. Limits should be firmly and consistently implemented. Flexibility and bargaining are not therapeutic in dealing with a manipulative client. B. There is no specific medication prescribed for this condition. C. This is not part of the care plan. Interaction with other clients are allowed but the client should be observed and given limits in her attempt to manipulate and dominate others.
The client is manipulative. The client must be informed about the policies, expectations, rules and regulation upon admission. A. Limits should be firmly and consistently implemented. Flexibility and bargaining are not therapeutic in dealing with a manipulative client. B. There is no specific medication prescribed for this condition. C. This is not part of the care plan. Interaction with other clients are allowed but the client should be observed and given limits in her attempt to manipulate and dominate others.
11.
Answer: (D) Ego
integrity vs. despair
The client belongs to the middle adulthood stage (30 to 65 yrs.) The developmental task generativity is characterized by concern and care for others. It is a productive and creative stage. (A) Infancy stage (0 – 18 mos.) is concerned with gratification of oral needs (B) School Age child (6 – 12 yrs.) is characterized by acquisition of school competencies and social skills (C) Late adulthood ( 60 and above) Concerned with reflection on the past and his contributions to others and face the future.
The client belongs to the middle adulthood stage (30 to 65 yrs.) The developmental task generativity is characterized by concern and care for others. It is a productive and creative stage. (A) Infancy stage (0 – 18 mos.) is concerned with gratification of oral needs (B) School Age child (6 – 12 yrs.) is characterized by acquisition of school competencies and social skills (C) Late adulthood ( 60 and above) Concerned with reflection on the past and his contributions to others and face the future.
12.
Answer: (B) to deal
with feelings and thoughts that are not acceptable
Projection is a defense mechanism where one attributes ones feelings and inadequacies to others to reduce anxiety. A. This is not true in all instances of projection C and D. This focuses on the self rather than others
Projection is a defense mechanism where one attributes ones feelings and inadequacies to others to reduce anxiety. A. This is not true in all instances of projection C and D. This focuses on the self rather than others
13.
Answer: (C) “I don’t
know anything about that. You are afraid of being harmed.”
This presents reality and acknowledges the clients feeling A and B. are not therapeutic responses because these disagree with the client’s false belief and makes the client feel challenged D. unnecessary exploration of the false
This presents reality and acknowledges the clients feeling A and B. are not therapeutic responses because these disagree with the client’s false belief and makes the client feel challenged D. unnecessary exploration of the false
14.
Answer: (B)
Pseudoparkinsonism
Pseudoparkinsonism is a side effect of antipsychotic drugs characterized by mask-like facies, pill rolling tremors, muscle rigidity A. Tardive dyskinesia is manifested by lip smacking, wormlike movement of the tongue C. Akinesia is characterized by feeling of weakness and muscle fatigue D. Dystonia is manifested by torticollis and rolling back of the eyes
Pseudoparkinsonism is a side effect of antipsychotic drugs characterized by mask-like facies, pill rolling tremors, muscle rigidity A. Tardive dyskinesia is manifested by lip smacking, wormlike movement of the tongue C. Akinesia is characterized by feeling of weakness and muscle fatigue D. Dystonia is manifested by torticollis and rolling back of the eyes
15.
Answer: (B)
Transference
Transference is a positive or negative feeling associated with a significant person in the client’s past that are unconsciously assigned to another A. Splitting is a defense mechanism commonly seen in a client with personality disorder in which the world is perceived as all good or all bad C. Counterttransference is a phenomenon where the nurse shifts feelings assigned to someone in her past to the patient D. Resistance is the client’s refusal to submit himself to the care of the nurse
Transference is a positive or negative feeling associated with a significant person in the client’s past that are unconsciously assigned to another A. Splitting is a defense mechanism commonly seen in a client with personality disorder in which the world is perceived as all good or all bad C. Counterttransference is a phenomenon where the nurse shifts feelings assigned to someone in her past to the patient D. Resistance is the client’s refusal to submit himself to the care of the nurse
16.
Answer: (B) Adventitious
Adventitious crisis is a crisis involving a traumatic event. It is not part of everyday life. A. Situational crisis is from an external source that upset ones psychological equilibrium C and D. Are the same. They are transitional or developmental periods in life
Adventitious crisis is a crisis involving a traumatic event. It is not part of everyday life. A. Situational crisis is from an external source that upset ones psychological equilibrium C and D. Are the same. They are transitional or developmental periods in life
17.
Answer: (B) Touch
the client to show acceptance and empathy
The client finds touch intrusive and therefore should be avoided. A. Privacy is one of the rights of a victim of rape. C.The client is anxious. Accompanying the client in a quiet room ensures safety and offers emotional support. D. Guilt feeling is common among rape victims. They should not be blamed.
The client finds touch intrusive and therefore should be avoided. A. Privacy is one of the rights of a victim of rape. C.The client is anxious. Accompanying the client in a quiet room ensures safety and offers emotional support. D. Guilt feeling is common among rape victims. They should not be blamed.
18.
Answer: (C) She
postpones the physical assessment until the client is calm
The nurse acts as a patient advocate as she protects the client from psychological harm A. The nurse acts a a counselor B. The nurse acts as a technician D. This exemplifies the role of a teacher
The nurse acts as a patient advocate as she protects the client from psychological harm A. The nurse acts a a counselor B. The nurse acts as a technician D. This exemplifies the role of a teacher
19.
Answer: (D) Help her
return to her pre-rape level of function
The goal of crisis intervention to help the client return to her level of function prior to the crisis. A,B and C are interventions or strategies to attain the goal
The goal of crisis intervention to help the client return to her level of function prior to the crisis. A,B and C are interventions or strategies to attain the goal
20.
Answer: (D) Post
traumatic disorder
Post traumatic stress disorder is characterized by flashback, irritability, difficulty falling asleep and concentrating following an extremely traumatic event. This lasts for more that one month A. Adjustment disorder is the maladaptive reaction to stressful events characterized by anxiety, depression and work or social impairments. This occurs within 3 months after the event B. Somatoform disorders are anxiety related disorders characterized by presence of physical symptoms without demonstrable organic basis C. Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by chronic, excessive anxiety for at least 6 months
Post traumatic stress disorder is characterized by flashback, irritability, difficulty falling asleep and concentrating following an extremely traumatic event. This lasts for more that one month A. Adjustment disorder is the maladaptive reaction to stressful events characterized by anxiety, depression and work or social impairments. This occurs within 3 months after the event B. Somatoform disorders are anxiety related disorders characterized by presence of physical symptoms without demonstrable organic basis C. Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by chronic, excessive anxiety for at least 6 months
21.
Answer: (C)
Severe
The client’s manifestations indicate severe anxiety. A Mild anxiety is manifested by slight muscle tension, slight fidgeting, alertness, ability to concentrate and capable of problem solving. B. Moderate muscle tension, increased vital signs, periodic slow pacing, increased rate of speech and difficulty in concentrating are noted in moderate anxiety. D. Panic level of anxiety is characterized immobilization, incoherence, feeling of being overwhelmed and disorganization
The client’s manifestations indicate severe anxiety. A Mild anxiety is manifested by slight muscle tension, slight fidgeting, alertness, ability to concentrate and capable of problem solving. B. Moderate muscle tension, increased vital signs, periodic slow pacing, increased rate of speech and difficulty in concentrating are noted in moderate anxiety. D. Panic level of anxiety is characterized immobilization, incoherence, feeling of being overwhelmed and disorganization
22.
Answer: (B) a
subjectively perceived threat
Anxiety is caused by a subjectively perceived threat A. Fear is caused by an objective threat C. A depressed client internalizes hostility D. Mania is due to masked depression
Anxiety is caused by a subjectively perceived threat A. Fear is caused by an objective threat C. A depressed client internalizes hostility D. Mania is due to masked depression
23.
Answer: (A) Give
specific instructions using speak in concise statements.
The client has narrowed perceptual field. Lengthy explanations cannot be followed by the client. B. The client will not be able to identify the cause of anxiety C and D. The client has difficulty concentrating and will not be able to focus.
The client has narrowed perceptual field. Lengthy explanations cannot be followed by the client. B. The client will not be able to identify the cause of anxiety C and D. The client has difficulty concentrating and will not be able to focus.
24.
Answer: (B)
Valium
Antianxiety A. Antidepressant C. Antipsychotic D. Antimanic
Antianxiety A. Antidepressant C. Antipsychotic D. Antimanic
25.
Answer: (B) Take the
medication after meals.
Antianxiety medications cause G.I. upset so it should be taken after meals. A. This is specific for antidepressant MAOI. Taking tyramine rich food can cause hypertensive crisis. C. Valium causes dependency. In which case, the medication should be gradually withdrawn to prevent the occurrence of convulsion. D The dose of Valium should not be doubled if the previous dose was not taken. It can intensify the CNS depressant effects.
Antianxiety medications cause G.I. upset so it should be taken after meals. A. This is specific for antidepressant MAOI. Taking tyramine rich food can cause hypertensive crisis. C. Valium causes dependency. In which case, the medication should be gradually withdrawn to prevent the occurrence of convulsion. D The dose of Valium should not be doubled if the previous dose was not taken. It can intensify the CNS depressant effects.
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